Originally Posted By: Ice
Originally Posted By: olivant
Ice, how stupid can you be?

"Nowhere in the Constitution does it require one to answer to the draft."

But Article I, Section 8 of that same Constitution does empower the US Congress to raise armies and the last paragraph of that same Section empowers Congress to "make all laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying nto execution the foregoing powers ... (it's refered to as the Elastic Clause or the Necessary and Proper clause)" To wit: US Code Ttile 50, section 451 through 538. Your induction letter commands one to appear just as a subpoena comands one to appear. If you don't appear, you have demurred the command.


Again, as I said before, the President has the right to declare war, but that doesn't necessarily give him the right to make me fight it for him. Many appealed the Vietnam induction letter in the courts, and many won. That's a fact. You challenge ANYTHING, dude! lol

Originally Posted By: olivant
"No where does it specifically and unequivocally require one to pay their income taxes...no where."

"No where in writing, will the court be able to positively and undeniably prove that you've broken the law by not paying your income tax."

Title 26, Section I of the US Code defines the imposition of the income tax and Section 6301 empowers the Secretary of the US Treasury to collect said tax. Further Sections of the code define the collection process and what constitutes one's failure to comply with the collection process. So, upon your failure to comply with the collection process, the federal government's burden will be to show that you did not comply with the collection process. Having failed to comply, you have broken the law.


Yes, but that code was written was after a 1908 resolution that stated the US Government would administer NO new taxes. You can challenge on that basis.

Read more about it here: http://nontaxpayer.org


Quote:
You know Einstein, you won't find any provision of the Constitution or US Code that requires that you drop your weapon when commanded to do so by a federal agent. However, US Code empowers federal law enforcement agencies to use deadly force when their agents believe their lives or well-being are threatened. It also requires that one obey the command of a federal agent. But go ahead and put yourself in the "ambiguous" situation of not doing so and see what happens. On the state and local level, there's nothing in a state law or a municipal ordinance that requires that one operate a motorized vehicle at the posted speed limit, but those same laws and ordinances unequivically state what are the consequences of not doing so.


The traffic sign serves as the written documentation of the law -- whenever one becomes a certified driver in their respective state, they acknowledge that they have been made aware of those signs and the legality that they hold.

And as far as dropping your weapon in the presence of federal agents, that's not written anywhere either b/c again, as I said earlier, that's when "boots and guns" take the place of "law and logic." The boots and guns don't need a law to tell them they can shoot anyone resisting. That's why they're the boots and guns.


As TB as stated in his recent post, the President of the United States has no Constitutional authority to declare war. Such a declaration is the exclusive province of the US Congress as expressed in Artilce I, Section 8 of the US Constitution. Article I, Section 8 also gives the US Congress the exclusive authority to raise armies. Thus, such authority does not reside with the President.

What's wrong with you? The 16th amendment to the US Constitution ratified in 1913 provides the US Congress with the authority to lay and collect taxes. My God, learn the difference between Constitutional provisions, statutory law, and Congressional resolutions before spouting off about them. How daft do you have to be to think that a Congressional resolution takes precedent over a US Constitutional provision?

No, the traffic sign serves no such purpose. Speed limit signs on local government right of way have to be authorized in the form of an ordinance by that local government's governing body. State laws provides a state's transportation department or public safety department with limited authority to establish speed limits until the respective state legislature convenes to do so by legislation. Such ordinances or legislation do not require compliance. They simply state the speed limit and the consequences of exceeding the speed limit.

US Code requires that you obey the lawful commands of a federal agent and authorizes the use of deadly force (Start with US Code 31, Section 321). State laws require that you obey the lawful commands of law enforcement officers and authorize the use of deadly force if you don't. It's as simple as that. The only stipulation is that the command be lawful (any dispute over such lawfulness will be adjudicated post facto). And yes, law enforcement officers do need "a law to tell them they can shoot anyone resisting" (Texas Penal Code, Subchapter E, Section 9.51).


Last edited by olivant; 05/31/08 06:02 PM.

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