I was watching a movie where they stated that a general was accused of violating the Logan Act. I was wondering if someone could explain me in short what's the use of this Act. Is it to prevent terrorism? Wikipedia says no one is ever convicted based on violating this Act.

It's a federal law that prohibits private citizens from dealing with foreign governments. It's rarely (if ever) used. It's basically all bark and no bite. I'm sure that Olivant could explain it a lot better than me.

Then we'll wait for him but thanks anyway.

But what kind of deals they are talking about then? Can't imagine of anything I would make a deal about with a foreing government :s

Edit: just for who's interested (and I couldn't find a good topic to post it) I'm currently working as an para-legal/juridical advisor for an Union in The Netherlands, despite having studied Penal Law I'm mostly doing Labour Law now.

The Logan Act actually goes back to the 18th century passed by the Congress with the support of President Adams. Although political parties weren't like they are today, Adams was a federalist and people like Jefferson were Republicans. The federalists were out to destroy the Republicans and they used the quasi-war with France to try and achieve it. The Logan act came on the heels of the Alien and Sedition acts which were an attempt to silence Adam's critics. And get this. The alien part of the acts was intended to keep aliens from voting and supporting the Republicans. Sound familiar. So, a US citizen went to the French and was able to get them to stop hostilities towrd the US. As a result, Adams and the federalists could no longer use the quasi-war with France as an issue to generate support. So, they passed the Logan Act and it went through a techmnical revision in 1948 and '94. But, yes, Americans are not suppposed to communicate with foreign governments in an attempt to influence relations between thema nd the US.