Imbued by unrelenting and unwarranted censorship here and an earlier argument with an uncontrollably - to her misfortune - psychosomatically-troubled psycopathic liberal who is desirable for copulation; the subsequent questions presented themselves to me. When does a woman lose her veil as 'lady?' Is a wantonly premiscuous, and disrespectful 'woman,' still a lady? Should she not be subjected to substantial treatment as harsh as the one a man would be a subject to, for the consequences of his imprudent actions? Is it morally right for a woman to abuse a man and then expect to be treated as a lady?

Exceptions and generalizations to the above questions are endless, and I am not alluding to a man who drinks too much, and then inebriated physically abuses his wife after getting home or anything similar to the above predicament. On which case the subject would not be a 'man,' but a carrier of penile and other muscles - a true waste. But to a woman who insolently manipulates a man, one who presumptuously and with the expedient of her status demarcates what he can do or not do while she treads his honor. Should she be treated as a man? What awards her extraordinary treatment, if not her truly dignified, feminine grace?

Should a loquacious and presumptous 'woman' who acts like a harlot or is one; who attacks a man physically, be dealt with as if she was a man? She has forfeited her grace long ago if she is at such a extremes, has she not?

N.B: Through the word "'man'" I describe a male who acts like a chilvalrous gentleman - and nothing else.